A 62-year-old patient on peritoneal dialysis presents with cloudy dialysate, diffuse abdominal pain, and low-grade fever. Initial analysis shows dialysate white blood cell count of 150/mm³ with 60% neutrophils. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Discontinue peritoneal dialysis and initiate hemodialysis
Wait for peritoneal fluid culture results before starting antibiotics
Increase frequency of dialysate exchanges
Start empiric antibiotic therapy immediately